Let \(f: X \to Y\) be a (not necessarily invertible) function, and \(A \subseteq X\).
Prove that \(A \subseteq f^{-1}(f(A))\).
Prove that if \(f\) is injective (one-to-one) then \(A = f^{-1}(f(A))\).
Give an example for which \(A \neq f^{-1}(f(A))\).
Solution
If \(x\in A\), then \(f(x)\in f(A)\), so by definition \(x\in f^{-1}(f(A))\). Thus \[ A\subseteq f^{-1}(f(A)). \]
Suppose \(f\) is injective and \(x\in f^{-1}(f(A))\). Then \(f(x)\in f(A)\), so there exists \(a\in A\) with \(f(x)=f(a)\). Injectivity gives \(x=a\in A\). Thus the reverse inclusion holds and \[ A=f^{-1}(f(A)). \]
Let \(X=\{0,1\}\), \(Y=\{0\}\), let \(f\) be constant, and take \(A=\{0\}\). Then \[ f^{-1}(f(A))=X\ne A. \]