Define \[ f(z) &= {\pi^2 \over \sin^2 \qty{\pi z} } \\ g(z) &= \sum_{n\in \ZZ} {1\over (z-n)^2} .\]
- Show that \(f\) and \(g\) have the same singularities in \(\CC\).
- Show that \(f\) and \(g\) have the same singular parts at each of their singularities.
- Show that \(f, g\) each have period one and approach zero uniformly on \(0\leq x \leq 1\) as \(\abs{y}\to \infty\).
- Conclude that \(f = g\).
Solution
Idea: show their \(f-g\) is analytic by taking away all of the negative powers, and bounded by (c).