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    A sequence converging uniformly to $0$ on $\RR$ but not in $L^1(\RR)$

    FE-3RPMC

    Uniform convergence on \(\RR\), which implies pointwise convergence and convergence almost everywhere, does not imply convergence in \(L^1(\RR)\). For \(n\geq 1\) let \[ f_n \coloneqq \frac{1}{n} \chi_{[0, n]}\colon\RR\to\RR. \] Then \(\norm{f_n}_\infty = \frac1n\to 0\), so \(f_n\to 0\) uniformly on \(\RR\). But \(\int_\RR \abs{f_n - 0}\dx = \frac1n\cdot n = 1\) for every \(n\), so \(f_n\not\to 0\) in \(L^1(\RR)\).

    Give a sequence that converges uniformly, pointwise, and a.e., but not in $L^1$.

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