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    $A^n = B^n$ does not imply $A = B$ for matrices

    FE-W56LS

    For square matrices \(A,B\) and \(n\ge2\), \(A^n=B^n\) does not imply \(A=B\). In \(\Mat_2(\RR)\), the matrix \(M=\matt 0 1 1 0\) satisfies \(M^2=I_2=I_2^2\), and \(M\ne I_2\).

    Does $A^n=B^n$ imply $A=B$?

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