Translating an $L^1$ function does not change its Lebesgue integral.Suggest a slogan
Let \(f\in L^1(\RR^n)\) and \(h\in\RR^n\). Then \(x\mapsto f(x+h)\) lies in \(L^1(\RR^n)\) and \[ \int_{\RR^n} f(x+h)\dx = \int_{\RR^n} f(x)\dx . \]
PR-XAVMU
Let \(f\in L^1(\RR^n)\) and \(h\in\RR^n\). Then \(x\mapsto f(x+h)\) lies in \(L^1(\RR^n)\) and \[ \int_{\RR^n} f(x+h)\dx = \int_{\RR^n} f(x)\dx . \]