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    Translation invariance of the Lebesgue integral

    PR-XAVMU

    Translating an $L^1$ function does not change its Lebesgue integral.Suggest a slogan

    Let \(f\in L^1(\RR^n)\) and \(h\in\RR^n\). Then \(x\mapsto f(x+h)\) lies in \(L^1(\RR^n)\) and \[ \int_{\RR^n} f(x+h)\dx = \int_{\RR^n} f(x)\dx . \]

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